[2025] Pass PMI CAPM Exam Updated 1253 Questions
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Target Audience for CAPM Exam
The Certified Associate in Project Management exam targets individuals who want to develop in the field of project management by gaining up-to-date skills. It requires one to meet some prerequisites:
- Completing at least 23 hours of education in project management before sitting for the CAPM test.
- Having a high school diploma, or another secondary degree, or a global equivalent;
Also, an enrollment fee is required. It is $225 for members of PMI and rises up to $300 for other non-member candidates.
NEW QUESTION # 107
Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?
- A. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.
- B. The cost of changes is highest at the start.
- C. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.
- D. Staffing level is highest at the start.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which of the following items is a technique for data gathering?
- A. Interviews
- B. Conflict management
- C. Facilitation
- D. Meeting management
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 109
Which role does the project manager resemble best?
- A. Functional manager
- B. Orchestra conductor
- C. Facilities supervisor
- D. School principal
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 110
In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:
- A. To estimate resource allocations.
- B. Within a work package.
- C. To estimate schedule constraints.
- D. In each phase of the project.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
NEW QUESTION # 111
Which are the competing constrains that project manager should address when tailoring a project?
- A. Cost, scope, schedule
- B. Resources, Quality, Communication
- C. Schedule, sponsorship, scope
- D. Sponsorship, risk, quality
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 112
A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:
- A. analytical techniques
- B. meetings
- C. change control tools
- D. expert judgment
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 113
A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?
- A. Risk monitoring and controlling
- B. Quantitative risk analysis
- C. Qualitative risk analysis
- D. Risk response planning
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
"Qualitative Risk Analysis assesses the priority of identified risks using their probability of occurring, the corresponding impact [...] as well as other factors such as the time frame and risk tolerance [...]."
NEW QUESTION # 114
Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?
- A. The sponsors and stakeholders
- B. The risk owners and stakeholders
- C. The customer and functional managers
- D. The project management team
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
NEW QUESTION # 115
Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?
- A. Project scope statement
- B. Scope management plan
- C. Project document updates
- D. Project charter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
The project team must complete a scope statement for developing a common understanding of the project scope among stakeholders. This lists project deliverables - summary level sub-products, whose full and satisfactory delivery marks the completion of the project.
NEW QUESTION # 116
Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
- A. Resource optimization
- B. Decomposition
- C. Modeling techniques
- D. Meetings
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 117
The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?
- A. 0.8
- B. 0
- C. 1.8
- D. 1.25
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
NEW QUESTION # 118
Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
- A. Organizational process assets updates
- B. Change request status updates
- C. Work performance information
- D. Project management plan
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 119
Which of the following is an input to the Plan Risk Responses process?
- A. Schedule management plan
- B. Risk urgency assessment
- C. Organizational process assets
- D. Risk register
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
11.2.3.1 Risk Register
The primary output from Identify Risks is the initial entry into the risk register. The risk register is a document in which the results of risk analysis and risk response planning are recorded. It contains the outcomes of the other risk management processes as they are conducted, resulting in an increase in the level and type of information contained in the risk register over time. The preparation of the risk register begins in the Identify Risks process with the following information, and then becomes available to other project management and risk management processes:
List of identified risks. The identified risks are described in as much detail as is reasonable. A structure for
describing risks using risk statements may be applied, for example, EVENT may occur causing IMPACT, or If CAUSE exists, EVENT may occur leading to EFFECT. In addition to the list of identified risks, the root causes of those risks may become more evident. These are the fundamental conditions or events that may give rise to one or more identified risks. They should be recorded and used to support future risk identification for this and other projects.
List of potential responses. Potential responses to a risk may sometimes be identified during the Identify
Risks process. These responses, if identified in this process, should be used as inputs to the Plan Risk Responses process.
Process: 11.5 Plan Risk Responses
Definition: The process of developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and to reduce threats to project objectives.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it addresses the risks by their priority, inserting resources and activities into the budget, schedule and project management plan as needed.
Inputs
1. Risk management plan
2. Risk register
Tools & Techniques
1. Strategies for negative risks or threats
2. Strategies for positive risks or opportunities
3. Contingent response strategies
4. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Project management plan updates
2. Project documents updates
NEW QUESTION # 120
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
- A. Enterprise environmental factors.
- B. Change requests.
- C. Work performance reports.
- D. Activity resource requirements.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 121
Which set of tools and techniques is useful for estimating activity durations for the project schedule?
- A. Milestone charts, parametric estimation, schedule baseline
- B. Parametric estimation, three-point estimation, analogous estimation
- C. Brainstorming, Monte Carlo Simulation, analogous estimation
- D. Three-point estimation, resources leveling, iteration burndown chart
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation/Reference: https://www.simplilearn.com/estimating-activity-duration-article
NEW QUESTION # 122
A project manager can choose from several techniques to resolve conflicts between team members. Which technique can result in a win-win solution?
- A. Compromise/Reconcile
- B. Collaborate/Problem Solve
- C. Smooth/Accommodate
- D. Withdraw/Avoid
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 123
A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?
- A. Direct and Manage Project Work
- B. Monitor and Control Project Work
- C. Perform Integrated Change Control
- D. Close Project or Phase
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 124
Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?
- A. Risk register updates
- B. Selected sellers
- C. Project statement of work
- D. Teaming agreements
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 125
In an agile or adaptive environment, when should risk be monitored and prioritized?
- A. During each iteration as the project progresses
- B. Only during the Initiation and Closing phases
- C. Throughout the Planning process group and retrospective meeting
- D. During the Initiation and Planning phases
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
NEW QUESTION # 126
Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?
- A. Brainstorming
- B. Affinity diagram
- C. Nominal group technique
- D. Idea/mind mapping
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
5.2.2.4 Group Creativity Techniques
Several group activities can be organized to identify project and product requirements. Some of the group creativity techniques that can be used are:
Brainstorming. A technique used to generate and collect multiple ideas related to project and product
requirements. Although brainstorming by itself does not include voting or prioritization, it is often used with other group creativity techniques that do.
Nominal group technique. A technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank
the most useful ideas for further brainstorming or for prioritization.
Idea/mind mapping. A technique in which ideas created through individual brainstorming sessions are
consolidated into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in understanding, and generate new ideas.
Affinity diagram. A technique that allows large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for review
and analysis.
Multicriteria decision analysis. A technique that utilizes a decision matrix to provide a systematic
analytical approach for establishing criteria, such as risk levels, uncertainty, and valuation, to evaluate and rank many ideas.
NEW QUESTION # 127
Outputs from constituent processes might be used as:
- A. Identification of project tasks.
- B. Proof of process completion.
- C. Indicators to eliminate project redundancies.
- D. Inputs to other processes.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 128
Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?
- A. Functional manager
- B. Project management office
- C. Functional manager supported by the project manager
- D. Project manager
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 129
Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:
- A. benchmarking
- B. statistical sampling
- C. quality audits
- D. process analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
8.2.2.2 Quality Audits
A quality audit is a structured, independent process to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures. The objectives of a quality audit may include:
Identify all good and best practices being implemented;
Identify all nonconformity, gaps, and shortcomings;
Share good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or
industry;
Proactively offer assistance in a positive manner to improve implementation of processes to help the
team raise productivity; and
Highlight contributions of each audit in the lessons learned repository of the organization.
The subsequent effort to correct any defciencies should result in a reduced cost of quality and an increase in sponsor or customer acceptance of the project's product. Quality audits may be scheduled or random, and may be conducted by internal or external auditors.
Quality audits can confirm the implementation of approved change requests including updates, corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions.
8.2.2.3 Process Analysis
Process analysis follows the steps outlined in the process improvement plan to identify needed improvements.
This analysis also examines problems experienced, constraints experienced, and non-value-added activities identified during process operation. Process analysis includes root cause analysis-a specific technique used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventive actions.
NEW QUESTION # 130
How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?
- A. Keep informed
- B. Monitor
- C. Manage closely
- D. Keep satisfied
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation
Explanation:
13.1.2.1 Stakeholder Analysis
Stakeholder analysis is a technique of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose interests should be taken into account throughout the project. It identifies the interests, expectations, and influence of the stakeholders and relates them to the purpose of the project. It also helps to identify stakeholder relationships (with the project and with other stakeholders) that can be leveraged to build coalitions and potential partnerships to enhance the project's chance of success, along with stakeholder relationships that need to be influenced differently at different stages of the project or phase.
Stakeholder analysis generally follows the steps described below:
Identify all potential project stakeholders and relevant information, such as their roles, departments,
interests, knowledge, expectations, and influence levels. Key stakeholders are usually easy to identify. They include anyone in a decision-making or management role who is impacted by the project outcome, such as the sponsor, the project manager, and the primary customer. Identifying other stakeholders is usually done by interviewing identified stakeholders and expanding the list until all potential stakeholders are included.
Analyze the potential impact or support each stakeholder could generate, and classify them so as to define
an approach strategy. In large stakeholder communities, it is important to prioritize the stakeholders to ensure the efficient use of effort to communicate and manage their expectations.
Assess how key stakeholders are likely to react or respond in various situations, in order to plan how to
influence them to enhance their support and mitigate potential negative impacts.
There are multiple classification models used for stakeholders analysis, such as:
Power/interest grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority ("power") and their level or
concern ("interest") regarding the project outcomes;
Power/influence grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority ("power") and their active
involvement ("influence") in the project;
Influence/impact grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their active involvement ("influence") in the project
and their ability to effect changes to the project's planning or execution ("impact"); and Salience model, describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will),
urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).
NEW QUESTION # 131
Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?
- A. Project managers only
- B. Functional managers and manager of project managers
- C. Functional managers only
- D. Technical managers and project managers
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
NEW QUESTION # 132
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