Cisco 300-215 Real Exam Questions Test Engine Dumps Training With 118 Questions [Q26-Q49]

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Cisco 300-215 Real Exam Questions Test Engine Dumps Training With 118 Questions

300-215 Actual Questions Answers PDF 100% Cover Real Exam Questions


Prerequisites

The Cisco 300-215 CBRFIR exam does not have any formal requirements. However, it is recommended that the candidates have between three and five years of practical experience in implementing different enterprise networking solutions. It is also pretty important to be familiar with the content of the test.


Cisco 300-215 certification exam is a comprehensive exam that covers a wide range of topics related to conducting forensic analysis and incident response using Cisco technologies. 300-215 exam tests the candidate's knowledge of Cisco security technologies, such as Firepower, Identity Services Engine (ISE), Advanced Malware Protection (AMP), and Stealthwatch. Additionally, the exam also covers topics such as cyber incident response, digital forensics, and network forensics.

 

NEW QUESTION # 26
An engineer received a report of a suspicious email from an employee. The employee had already opened the attachment, which was an empty Word document. The engineer cannot identify any clear signs of compromise but while reviewing running processes, observes that PowerShell.exe was spawned by cmd.exe with a grandparent winword.exe process. What is the recommended action the engineer should take?

  • A. Monitor processes as this is standard behavior of Word macro embedded documents.
  • B. Upload the file signature to threat intelligence tools to determine if the file is malicious.
  • C. Contain the threat for further analysis as this is an indication of suspicious activity.
  • D. Investigate the sender of the email and communicate with the employee to determine the motives.

Answer: C

Explanation:
This behavior is consistent withmalicious macro activity. A PowerShell process being spawned fromwinword.exeviacmd.exestrongly indicates execution of an embedded script. Cisco recommends containment as a critical next step:
"Contain the threat as soon as malicious behavior is observed to prevent lateral movement or additional compromise".


NEW QUESTION # 27

  • A. Bash
  • B. VBScript
  • C. Python
  • D. shell

Answer: C

Explanation:
The code includes syntax and modules such asimport win32con,import win32api, and uses Python-specific formatting likedef,try/except, andprint, clearly indicating that this is written in Python. It also uses thewmimodule to monitor process creation events-a common technique in Python-based process monitoring scripts on Windows.
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NEW QUESTION # 28
During a routine inspection of system logs, a security analyst notices an entry where Microsoft Word initiated a PowerShell command with encoded arguments. Given that the user's role does not involve scripting or advanced document processing, which action should the analyst take to analyze this output for potential indicators of compromise?

  • A. Review the encoded PowerShell arguments to decode and determine the intent of the script.
  • B. Validate the frequency of PowerShell usage across all hosts to establish a baseline.
  • C. Monitor the Microsoft Word startup times to ensure they align with business hours.
  • D. Confirm that the Microsoft Word license is valid and the application is updated to the latest version.

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to theCyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guidecurriculum, when analyzing suspicious behavior-especially when scripts or shell commands are executed from applications like Word (which is uncommon)-the encoded PowerShell payload must be decoded to determine if malicious intent is present. Deobfuscation is a critical step in identifying command-and-control behavior, persistence, or malware execution paths.
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NEW QUESTION # 29
Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of code is being used?

  • A. VBScript
  • B. Python
  • C. BASH
  • D. Shell

Answer: B

Explanation:
The code in the exhibit is written in Python. Here's how we can confirm:
* The function definition uses Python syntax: def function_name(args):
* It uses the b64encode and decode functions - typical of Python's base64 module.
* Data structures such as dictionaries are used with curly braces (e.g., form_data = {entry1: enc1, ...}).
* The conditional syntax uses "if r.status_code == 200:" which is Pythonic.
* The request object "r = post(...)" and use of headers show standard use of the Python requests library.
This type of script is typical in exfiltration scenarios where encoded information is sent via a web form (in this case Google Forms), bypassing detection systems.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on "Working with Malware and Exploit Scripts," which includes analysis of obfuscated and encoded scripts written in Python used for data exfiltration or C2 communication.


NEW QUESTION # 30
A security team received reports of users receiving emails linked to external or unknown URLs that are non- returnable and non-deliverable. The ISP also reported a 500% increase in the amount of ingress and egress email traffic received. After detecting the problem, the security team moves to the recovery phase in their incident response plan. Which two actions should be taken in the recovery phase of this incident? (Choose two.)

  • A. request packet capture
  • B. verify the breadth of the attack
  • C. collect logs
  • D. scan hosts with updated signatures
  • E. remove vulnerabilities

Answer: D,E

Explanation:
In therecovery phase, the goal is to restore affected systems to normal operations and ensure the threat has been completely eradicated. According to the CyberOps Associate guide:
"This phase may include restoring data from clean backups, replacing compromised systems, and the re- installation of the Operating System (OS) and applications".
Also:
"During recovery, scanning hosts with updated antivirus and removing vulnerabilities ensures systems do not get reinfected".


NEW QUESTION # 31
An organization recovered from a recent ransomware outbreak that resulted in significant business damage. Leadership requested a report that identifies the problems that triggered the incident and the security team's approach to address these problems to prevent a reoccurrence. Which components of the incident should an engineer analyze first for this report?

  • A. risk and RPN
  • B. impact and flow
  • C. cause and effect
  • D. motive and factors

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:


NEW QUESTION # 32
What is a use of TCPdump?

  • A. to analyze IP and other packets
  • B. to decode user credentials
  • C. to change IP ports
  • D. to view encrypted data fields

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 33
Refer to the exhibit.

A cybersecurity analyst is presented with the snippet of code used by the threat actor and left behind during the latest incident and is asked to determine its type based on its structure and functionality. What is the type of code being examined?

  • A. basic web crawler for indexing website content
  • B. network monitoring script for capturing incoming traffic
  • C. socket programming listener for TCP/IP communication
  • D. simple client-side script for downloading other elements

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Python code snippet:
* Usessocket.socket(AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM), which indicatesTCP communication
* Connects to a remote server (192.168.1.10on port 80)
* Sends a manual HTTPGETrequest
* Receives the response usings.recv()
This is a classic example ofTCP/IP socket programming, specifically creating asimple TCP clientto communicate with a web server. It does not monitor traffic or crawl websites - it sends a crafted request and prints the response.
Thus, this code best fits:
D). socket programming listener for TCP/IP communication.


NEW QUESTION # 34
What is the goal of an incident response plan?

  • A. to contain an attack and prevent it from spreading
  • B. to ensure systems are in place to prevent an attack
  • C. to determine security weaknesses and recommend solutions
  • D. to identify critical systems and resources in an organization

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 35
Refer to the exhibit.

What should be determined from this Apache log?

  • A. The private key does not match with the SSL certificate.
  • B. The certificate file has been maliciously modified
  • C. The SSL traffic setup is improper
  • D. A module named mod_ssl is needed to make SSL connections.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 36
A threat actor has successfully attacked an organization and gained access to confidential files on a laptop.
What plan should the organization initiate to contain the attack and prevent it from spreading to other network devices?

  • A. attack surface
  • B. intrusion prevention
  • C. root cause
  • D. incident response

Answer: D

Explanation:
Once an incident has occurred, the appropriate course of action is to engage the organization's Incident Response (IR) plan. This is a structured approach to contain, analyze, and eradicate threats before they spread across the network.
The Cisco CyberOps Associate study guide emphasizes:
* "Incident response and handling are essential within an organization... The main objective of implementing an incident handling process is to reduce the impact of a cyber-attack, ensure the damages caused are assessed, and implement recovery procedures".
* In particular, the containment phase of IR is focused on isolating the threat and preventing lateral movement or further compromise.
Options such as "root cause" or "attack surface" are relevant at later stages of analysis and mitigation, not immediate containment. Therefore, the correct answer is C.


NEW QUESTION # 37

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst notices that a web application running on NGINX is generating an unusual number of log messages. The application is operational and reachable. What is the cause of this activity?

  • A. DDoS attack
  • B. directory fuzzing
  • C. botnet infection
  • D. SQL injection

Answer: B

Explanation:
The provided log file contains multiple HTTP GET requests attempting to access various directories and files on the web server such as:
* /balance
* /security
* /finance
* /secret
* /opt
* /fuzzer/admin
These requests appear to be sequential, systematically targeting commonly used file and directory paths. The response codes are mostly 404 (Not Found) and a few 301s, indicating that the requester is trying different permutations of paths to discover hidden or vulnerable endpoints. This behavior is consistent withdirectory fuzzing, a reconnaissance technique used by attackers (or automated tools) to map out web directory structures by sending a high volume of crafted requests to guess hidden or unlinked directories and files.
This is distinct from DDoS (which would manifest as volume-based access issues), SQL injection (which targets specific parameters within requests), or botnet infection (which generally involves command-and- control communication or massive traffic floods).
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on Web Attacks and Threat Identification - Directory Fuzzing Patterns.


NEW QUESTION # 38
What are YARA rules based upon?

  • A. HTML code
  • B. IP addresses
  • C. binary patterns
  • D. network artifacts

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 39
Refer to the exhibit.

An employee notices unexpected changes and setting modifications on their workstation and creates an incident ticket. A support specialist checks processes and services but does not identify anything suspicious.
The ticket was escalated to an analyst who reviewed this event log and also discovered that the workstation had multiple large data dumps on network shares. What should be determined from this information?

  • A. data obfuscation
  • B. brute-force attack
  • C. log tampering
  • D. reconnaissance attack

Answer: C

Explanation:
The event log shown in the exhibit isEvent ID 104, which in Windows indicates"The audit log was cleared."This is a significant indicator oflog tampering, a common post-exploitation technique used by attackers to hide their tracks after exfiltrating data or performing unauthorized actions.
The Cisco CyberOps Associate guide mentions:
"Log deletion events, especially Event ID 104, should be treated as potential evidence of malicious activity attempting to cover tracks".
Combined with large data dumps to network shares, this indicates not only unauthorized activity but also deliberate efforts to erase forensic evidence-characteristic oflog tampering.


NEW QUESTION # 40
An organization experienced a sophisticated phishing attack that resulted in the compromise of confidential information from thousands of user accounts. The threat actor used a land and expand approach, where initially accessed account was used to spread emails further. The organization's cybersecurity team must conduct an in-depth root cause analysis to uncover the central factor or factors responsible for the success of the phishing attack. The very first victim of the attack was user with email [email protected]. The primary objective is to formulate effective strategies for preventing similar incidents in the future. What should the cybersecurity engineer prioritize in the root cause analysis report to demonstrate the underlying cause of the incident?

  • A. examination of the organization's network traffic logs to identify patterns of unusual behavior leading up to the attack
  • B. evaluation of the organization's incident response procedures and the performance of the incident response team
  • C. comprehensive analysis of the initial user for presence of an insider who gained monetary value by allowing the attack to happen
  • D. investigation into the specific vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the organization's email security systems that were exploited by the attackers

Answer: D

Explanation:
In phishing incidents, especially with successful lateral movement (land and expand), the most critical factor is usuallyweaknesses in email security systems-such as lack of advanced phishing detection, weak DMARC/DKIM/SPF policies, or insufficient user behavior monitoring. To prevent recurrence, the root cause analysis must focus on what allowed the phishing email to bypass defenses and how initial credentials were compromised.
This aligns with best practices from the Cisco CyberOps v1.2 Guide underEmail Threat Vectors and Security Control Weaknesses.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter on Threat Analysis and Root Cause Reporting.
Let me know if you'd like the next batch of questions formatted and verified in the same way.


NEW QUESTION # 41
A company had a recent data leak incident. A security engineer investigating the incident discovered that a malicious link was accessed by multiple employees. Further investigation revealed targeted phishing attack attempts on macOS systems, which led to backdoor installations and data compromise. Which two security solutions should a security engineer recommend to mitigate similar attacks in the future? (Choose two.)

  • A. secure email gateway
  • B. web application firewall
  • C. endpoint detection and response
  • D. data loss prevention
  • E. intrusion prevention system

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
* Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) tools provide behavioral analytics and continuous monitoring to detect malware such as backdoors, which is especially critical on endpoints like macOS devices.
These tools are essential to detect post-compromise activities and contain threats before they spread.
* Secure Email Gateway (e.g., Cisco ESA) plays a key role in blocking phishing emails-the initial vector in this attack. It uses filters and reputation analysis to prevent malicious links or attachments from reaching end users.
Incorrect Options:
* C. DLP focuses on preventing data exfiltration, not phishing prevention or backdoor detection.
* D. IPS is effective for known signature-based threats but less effective against phishing links and endpoint-level backdoors.
* E. WAF protects web servers, not end-user devices from phishing or backdoor infections.
Therefore, the correct answers are: A and B.


NEW QUESTION # 42
What is a concern for gathering forensics evidence in public cloud environments?

  • A. Configuration: Implementing security zones and proper network segmentation.
  • B. High Cost: Cloud service providers typically charge high fees for allowing cloud forensics.
  • C. Multitenancy: Evidence gathering must avoid exposure of data from other tenants.
  • D. Timeliness: Gathering forensics evidence from cloud service providers typically requires substantial time.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 43
An engineer is analyzing a ticket for an unexpected server shutdown and discovers that the web-server ran out of useable memory and crashed.
Which data is needed for further investigation?

  • A. /var/log/httpd/access.log
  • B. /var/log/access.log
  • C. /var/log/httpd/messages.log
  • D. /var/log/messages.log

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most relevant log for system-level events such as memory exhaustion and shutdown is/var/log/messages.
log, which contains kernel and service-level logs including OOM (Out-Of-Memory) events.
As detailed in Linux investigations:
"Logs located in/var/log/messagesprovide critical system error reporting including shutdowns, memory errors, and service failures".


NEW QUESTION # 44
Refer to the exhibit.

A company that uses only the Unix platform implemented an intrusion detection system. After the initial configuration, the number of alerts is overwhelming, and an engineer needs to analyze and classify the alerts.
The highest number of alerts were generated from the signature shown in the exhibit. Which classification should the engineer assign to this event?

  • A. True Positive alert
  • B. False Negative alert
  • C. True Negative alert
  • D. False Positive alert

Answer: D

Explanation:
The alert shown is based on aSnort rulefor aUnicode directory traversal attack against IIS web servers (Microsoft platform). The key detail here is the payload content"../..%c0%af../"which is a classic IIS-specific exploit related toCVE-2000-0884.
Since the company only usesUnix systems, they arenot vulnerableto this IIS-specific attack. Therefore, these alerts are triggered by irrelevant traffic or misapplied signatures, resulting inFalse Positives.
As defined in the Cisco CyberOps guide:
"False Positive: an alert is generated for traffic that is not actually malicious or relevant to the protected environment".


NEW QUESTION # 45
An employee receives an email from a "trusted" person containing a hyperlink that is malvertising. The employee clicks the link and the malware downloads. An information analyst observes an alert at the SIEM and engages the cybersecurity team to conduct an analysis of this incident in accordance with the incident response plan. Which event detail should be included in this root cause analysis?

  • A. alarm raised by the SIEM
  • B. alert identified by the cybersecurity team
  • C. information from the email header
  • D. phishing email sent to the victim

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 46
A security team received an alert of suspicious activity on a user's Internet browser. The user's anti-virus software indicated that the file attempted to create a fake recycle bin folder and connect to an external IP address. Which two actions should be taken by the security analyst with the executable file for further analysis? (Choose two.)

  • A. Analyze the Magic File type in Cisco Umbrella.
  • B. Analyze the TCP/IP Streams in Cisco Secure Malware Analytics (Threat Grid).
  • C. Evaluate the process activity in Cisco Umbrella.
  • D. Network Exit Localization in Cisco Secure Malware Analytics (Threat Grid).
  • E. Evaluate the behavioral indicators in Cisco Secure Malware Analytics (Threat Grid).

Answer: B,E


NEW QUESTION # 47
What is the goal of an incident response plan?

  • A. to contain an attack and prevent it from spreading
  • B. to ensure systems are in place to prevent an attack
  • C. to determine security weaknesses and recommend solutions
  • D. to identify critical systems and resources in an organization

Answer: A

Explanation:
The goal of an incident response plan (IRP) is to provide structured procedures for responding to cybersecurity incidents in a way that limits damage, contains the threat, and ensures business continuity. As outlined in the NIST SP 800-61 and Cisco CyberOps Associate study guide, containment and minimizing the impact of incidents is the primary goal of an IRP.
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NEW QUESTION # 48
In a secure government communication network, an automated alert indicates the presence of anomalous DLL files injected into the system memory during a routine update of communication protocols. These DLL files are exhibiting beaconing behavior to a satellite IP known for signal interception risks. Concurrently, there is an uptick in encrypted traffic volumes that suggests possible data exfiltration. Which set of actions should the security engineer prioritize?

  • A. Sever connections to the satellite IP, execute a rollback of the recent protocol updates, and engage counter-intelligence cybersecurity measures.
  • B. Activate a secure emergency communication channel, isolate the segments of the communication network, and initiate a threat hunting operation for further anomalies.
  • C. Conduct memory forensics to analyze the suspicious DLL files, disrupt the beaconing sequence, and assess the encrypted traffic for breach indicators.
  • D. Invoke a classified incident response scenario, notify national defense cyber operatives, and begin containment and eradication procedures on affected systems.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In highly sensitive environments such as secure government networks, the presence of anomalous DLL injection, beaconing to known interception points, and signs of encrypted data exfiltration constitutes a critical incident. The appropriate response in such classified contexts involves:
* Invoking a pre-established, classified incident response protocol,
* Immediately notifying national cyber defense operatives (such as national CERT or military cyber command),
* Prioritizing containment to stop lateral spread,
* Proceeding with eradication of malware or backdoors.
This response sequence aligns with the high-severity, immediate-response model described in the Cisco CyberOps Associate v1.2 curriculum under national defense and classified incident frameworks. The study guide emphasizes the importance of stakeholder communication and multi-agency coordination during advanced persistent threat (APT) intrusions involving critical infrastructure or defense systems.
Reference:CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) 300-215 study guide, Chapter: Critical Infrastructure and Advanced Threat Response, Incident Response Phases for Government Systems.


NEW QUESTION # 49
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300-215 Exam questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/open?id=120h5Zk0h6i96vMsbxMnMpzrhacw9DuFG