Accurate & Verified 2024 New CAS-005 Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!
CAS-005 Certification Sample Questions certification Exam
NEW QUESTION # 11
A company that relies on an COL system must keep it operating until a new solution is available Which of the following is the most secure way to meet this goal?
- A. Restricting system access to perform necessary maintenance by the IT team
- B. Placing the system in a screened subnet and blocking access from internal resources
- C. Isolating the system and enforcing firewall rules to allow access to only required endpoints
- D. Enforcing strong credentials and improving monitoring capabilities
Answer: C
Explanation:
To ensure the most secure way of keeping a legacy system (COL) operating until a new solution is available, isolating the system and enforcing strict firewall rules is the best approach. This method minimizes the attack surface by restricting access to only the necessary endpoints, thereby reducing the risk of unauthorized access and potential security breaches. Isolating the system ensures that it is not exposed to the broader network, while firewall rules control the traffic that can reach the system, providing a secure environment until a replacement is implemented.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Recommends network isolation and firewall rules as effective measures for securing legacy systems.
* NIST Special Publication 800-82, "Guide to Industrial Control Systems (ICS) Security": Advises on isolating critical systems and using firewalls to control access.
* "Network Security Assessment" by Chris McNab: Discusses techniques for isolating systems and enforcing firewall rules to protect vulnerable or legacy systems.
By isolating the system and implementing strict firewall controls, the organization can maintain the necessary operations securely while working on deploying a new solution.
NEW QUESTION # 12
A security operations engineer needs to prevent inadvertent data disclosure when encrypted SSDs are reused within an enterprise. Which of the following is the most secure way to achieve this goal?
- A. Securely deleting the encryption keys used by the SSD
- B. Wiping the SSD through degaussing
- C. Writing non-zero, random data to all cells of the SSD
- D. Executing a script that deletes and overwrites all data on the SSD three times
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most secure way to prevent inadvertent data disclosure when encrypted SSDs are reused is to securely delete the encryption keys used by the SSD. Without the encryption keys, the data on the SSD remains encrypted and is effectively unreadable, rendering any residual data useless. This method is more reliable and efficient than overwriting data multiple times or using other physical destruction methods.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Highlights the importance of managing encryption keys and securely deleting them to protect data.
* NIST Special Publication 800-88, "Guidelines for Media Sanitization": Recommends cryptographic erasure as a secure method for sanitizing encrypted storage devices.
NEW QUESTION # 13
A security administrator needs to automate alerting. The server generates structured log files that need to be parsed to determine whether an alarm has been triggered Given the following code function:
Which of the following is most likely the log input that the code will parse?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The code function provided in the question seems to be designed to parse JSON formatted logs to check for an alarm state. Option A is a JSON format that matches the structure likely expected by the code. The presence of the "error_log" and "InAlarmState" keys suggests that this is the correct input format.
NEW QUESTION # 14
Which of the following best describes the challenges associated with widespread adoption of homomorphic encryption techniques?
- A. Quantum computers not yet capable
- B. insufficient coprocessor support
- C. Incomplete mathematical primitives
- D. No use cases to drive adoption
Answer: B
Explanation:
Homomorphic encryption allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it, providing strong privacy guarantees. However, the adoption of homomorphic encryption is challenging due to several factors:
* A. Incomplete mathematical primitives: This is not the primary barrier as the theoretical foundations of homomorphic encryption are well-developed.
* B. No use cases to drive adoption: There are several compelling use cases for homomorphic encryption, especially in privacy-sensitive fields like healthcare and finance.
* C. Quantum computers not yet capable: Quantum computing is not directly related to the challenges of adopting homomorphic encryption.
* D. Insufficient coprocessor support: The computational overhead of homomorphic encryption is significant, requiring substantial processing power. Current general-purpose processors are not optimized for the intensive computations required by homomorphic encryption, limiting its practical deployment. Specialized hardware or coprocessors designed to handle these computations more efficiently are not yet widely available.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* "Homomorphic Encryption: Applications and Challenges" by Rivest et al.
* NIST, "Report on Post-Quantum Cryptography"
NEW QUESTION # 15
A systems administrator wants to reduce the number of failed patch deployments in an organization. The administrator discovers that system owners modify systems or applications in an ad hoc manner. Which of the following is the best way to reduce the number of failed patch deployments?
- A. Compliance tracking
- B. Change management
- C. Situational awareness
- D. Quality assurance
Answer: B
Explanation:
To reduce the number of failed patch deployments, the systems administrator should implement a robust change management process. Change management ensures that all modifications to systems or applications are planned, tested, and approved before deployment. This systematic approach reduces the risk of unplanned changes that can cause patch failures and ensures that patches are deployed in a controlled and predictable manner.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of change management in maintaining system integrity and ensuring successful patch deployments.
* ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Provides best practices for change management in IT services.
* "The Phoenix Project" by Gene Kim, Kevin Behr, and George Spafford: Discusses the critical role of change management in IT operations and its impact on system stability and reliability.
NEW QUESTION # 16
A security analyst Detected unusual network traffic related to program updating processes The analyst collected artifacts from compromised user workstations. The discovered artifacts were binary files with the same name as existing, valid binaries but. with different hashes which of the following solutions would most likely prevent this situation from reoccurring?
- A. Implementing digital signature
- B. Performing manual updates via USB ports
- C. Improving patching processes
- D. Allowing only dies from internal sources
Answer: A
Explanation:
Implementing digital signatures ensures the integrity and authenticity of software binaries. When a binary is digitally signed, any tampering with the file (e.g., replacing it with a malicious version) would invalidate the signature. This allows systems to verify the origin and integrity of binaries before execution, preventing the execution of unauthorized or compromised binaries.
* A. Improving patching processes: While important, this does not directly address the issue of verifying the integrity of binaries.
* B. Implementing digital signatures: This ensures that only valid, untampered binaries are executed, preventing attackers from substituting legitimate binaries with malicious ones.
* C. Performing manual updates via USB ports: This is not practical and does not scale well, especially in large environments.
* D. Allowing only files from internal sources: This reduces the risk but does not provide a mechanism to verify the integrity of binaries.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-57, "Recommendation for Key Management"
* OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on code signing
NEW QUESTION # 17
A security engineer is given the following requirements:
* An endpoint must only execute Internally signed applications
* Administrator accounts cannot install unauthorized software.
* Attempts to run unauthorized software must be logged
Which of the following best meets these requirements?
- A. Implementing a CSPM platform to monitor updates being pushed to applications
- B. Maintaining appropriate account access through directory management and controls
- C. Configuring application control with blocked hashes and enterprise-trusted root certificates
- D. Deploying an EDR solution to monitor and respond to software installation attempts
Answer: C
Explanation:
To meet the requirements of only allowing internally signed applications, preventing unauthorized software installations, and logging attempts to run unauthorized software, configuring application control with blocked hashes and enterprise-trusted root certificates is the best solution. This approach ensures that only applications signed by trusted certificates are allowed to execute, while all other attempts are blocked and logged. It effectively prevents unauthorized software installations by restricting execution to pre-approved applications.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Describes application control mechanisms and the use of trusted certificates to enforce security policies.
* NIST Special Publication 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations": Recommends application whitelisting and execution control for securing endpoints.
* "The Application Security Handbook" by Mark Dowd, John McDonald, and Justin Schuh: Covers best practices for implementing application control and managing trusted certificates
NEW QUESTION # 18
Users must accept the terms presented in a captive petal when connecting to a guest network. Recently, users have reported that they are unable to access the Internet after joining the network A network engineer observes the following:
* Users should be redirected to the captive portal.
* The Motive portal runs Tl. S 1 2
* Newer browser versions encounter security errors that cannot be bypassed
* Certain websites cause unexpected re directs
Which of the following mow likely explains this behavior?
- A. Allowed traffic rules are causing the NIPS to drop legitimate traffic
- B. Employment of the HSTS setting is proliferating rapidly.
- C. An attacker is redirecting supplicants to an evil twin WLAN.
- D. The TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal ate deprecated
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most likely explanation for the issues encountered with the captive portal is that the TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal are deprecated. Here's why:
* TLS Cipher Suites: Modern browsers are continuously updated to support the latest security standards and often drop support for deprecated and insecure cipher suites. If the captive portal uses outdated TLS ciphers, newer browsers may refuse to connect, causing security errors.
* HSTS and Browser Security: Browsers with HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS) enabled will not allow connections to sites with weak security configurations. Deprecated TLS ciphers would cause these browsers to block the connection.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-52: Guidelines for the Selection, Configuration, and Use of Transport Layer Security (TLS) Implementations
* OWASP Transport Layer Protection Cheat Sheet
By updating the TLS ciphers to modern, supported ones, the security engineer can ensure compatibility with newer browser versions and resolve the connectivity issues reported by users.
NEW QUESTION # 19
Company A and Company D ate merging Company A's compliance reports indicate branch protections are not in place A security analyst needs to ensure that potential threats to the software development life cycle are addressed. Which of the following should me analyst cons<der when completing this basic?
- A. If DAST code is being stored to a single code repository
- B. If developers are unable to promote to production
- C. If role-based training is deployed
- D. If DAST scans are routinely scheduled
Answer: D
Explanation:
Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) is crucial for identifying and addressing security vulnerabilities during the software development life cycle (SDLC). Ensuring that DAST scans are routinely scheduled helps in maintaining a secure development process.
Why Routine DAST Scans?
* Continuous Security Assessment: Regular DAST scans help in identifying vulnerabilities in real-time, ensuring they are addressed promptly.
* Compliance: Routine scans ensure that the development process complies with security standards and regulations.
* Proactive Threat Mitigation: Regular scans help in early detection and mitigation of potential security threats, reducing the risk of breaches.
* Integration into SDLC: Ensures security is embedded within the development process, promoting a security-first approach.
Other options, while relevant, do not directly address the continuous assessment and proactive identification of threats:
* A. If developers are unable to promote to production: This is more of an operational issue than a security assessment.
* B. If DAST code is being stored to a single code repository: This concerns code management rather than security testing frequency.
* D. If role-based training is deployed: While important, training alone does not ensure continuous security assessment.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* OWASP Testing Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations"
NEW QUESTION # 20
A security analyst is reviewing the following log:
Which of the following possible events should the security analyst investigate further?
- A. A macro that was prevented from running
- B. A text file containing passwords that were leaked
- C. A malicious file that was run in this environment
- D. A PDF that exposed sensitive information improperly
Answer: B
Explanation:
Based on the log provided, the most concerning event that should be investigated further is the presence of a text file containing passwords that were leaked. Here's why:
* Sensitive Information Exposure: A text file containing passwords represents a significant security risk, as it indicates that sensitive credentials have been exposed in plain text, potentially leading to unauthorized access.
* Immediate Threat: Password leaks can lead to immediate exploitation by attackers, compromising user accounts and sensitive data. This requires urgent investi
NEW QUESTION # 21
A company plans to implement a research facility with Intellectual property data that should be protected The following is the security diagram proposed by the security architect
Which of the following security architect models is illustrated by the diagram?
- A. Zero Trust security model
- B. Perimeter protection security model
- C. Agent based security model
- D. Identity and access management model
Answer: A
Explanation:
The security diagram proposed by the security architect depicts a Zero Trust security model. Zero Trust is a security framework that assumes all entities, both inside and outside the network, cannot be trusted and must be verified before gaining access to resources.
Key Characteristics of Zero Trust in the Diagram:
* Role-based Access Control: Ensures that users have access only to the resources necessary for their role.
* Mandatory Access Control: Additional layer of security requiring authentication for access to sensitive areas.
* Network Access Control: Ensures that devices meet security standards before accessing the network.
* Multi-factor Authentication (MFA): Enhances security by requiring multiple forms of verification.
This model aligns with the Zero Trust principles of never trusting and always verifying access requests, regardless of their origin.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-207, "Zero Trust Architecture"
* "Implementing a Zero Trust Architecture," Forrester Research
NEW QUESTION # 22
A senior security engineer flags me following log file snippet as hawing likely facilitated an attacker's lateral movement in a recent breach:
Which of the following solutions, if implemented, would mitigate the nsk of this issue reoccurnnp?
- A. Disabling DNS zone transfers
- B. Permitting only clients from internal networks to query DNS
- C. Implementing DNS masking on internal servers
- D. Restricting DNS traffic to UDP'W
Answer: A
Explanation:
The log snippet indicates a DNS AXFR (zone transfer) request, which can be exploited by attackers to gather detailed information about an internal network's infrastructure. Disabling DNS zone transfers is the best solution to mitigate this risk. Zone transfers should generally be restricted to authorized secondary DNS servers and not be publicly accessible, as they can reveal sensitive network information that facilitates lateral movement during an attack.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the importance of securing DNS configurations, including restricting zone transfers.
* NIST Special Publication 800-81, "Secure Domain Name System (DNS) Deployment Guide":
Recommends restricting or disabling DNS zone transfers to prevent information leakage.
NEW QUESTION # 23
An organization mat performs real-time financial processing is implementing a new backup solution Given the following business requirements?
* The backup solution must reduce the risk for potential backup compromise
* The backup solution must be resilient to a ransomware attack.
* The time to restore from backups is less important than the backup data integrity
* Multiple copies of production data must be maintained
Which of the following backup strategies best meets these requirement?
- A. Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync
- B. Setting up antitempering on the databases to ensure data cannot be changed unintentionally
- C. Enabling remote journaling on the databases to ensure real-time transactions are mirrored
- D. Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis
Answer: D
Explanation:
* A. Creating a secondary, immutable storage array and updating it with live data on a continuous basis: An immutable storage array ensures that data, once written, cannot be altered or deleted. This greatly reduces the risk of backup compromise and provides resilience against ransomware attacks, as the ransomware cannot modify or delete the backup data. Maintaining multiple copies of production data with an immutable storage solution ensures data integrity and compliance with the requirement for multiple copies.
Other options:
* B. Utilizing two connected storage arrays and ensuring the arrays constantly sync: While this ensures data redundancy, it does not provide protection against ransomware attacks, as both arrays could be compromised simultaneously.
* C. Enabling remote journaling on the databases: This ensures real-time transaction mirroring but does not address the requirement for reducing the risk of backup compromise or resilience to ransomware.
* D. Setting up anti-tampering on the databases: While this helps ensure data integrity, it does not provide a comprehensive backup solution that meets all the specified requirements.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* NIST SP 800-209, "Security Guidelines for Storage Infrastructure"
* "Immutable Backup Architecture" by Veeam
NEW QUESTION # 24
A systems administrator wants to introduce a newly released feature for an internal application. The administrate docs not want to test the feature in the production environment. Which of the following locations is the best place to test the new feature?
- A. Staging environment
- B. Development environment
- C. CI/CO pipeline
- D. Testing environment
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best location to test a newly released feature for an internal application, without affecting the production environment, is the staging environment. Here's a detailed explanation:
* Staging Environment: This environment closely mirrors the production environment in terms of hardware, software, configurations, and settings. It serves as a final testing ground before deploying changes to production. Testing in the staging environment ensures that the new feature will behave as expected in the actual production setup.
* Isolation from Production: The staging environment is isolated from production, which means any issues arising from the new feature will not impact the live users or the integrity of the production data.
This aligns with best practices in change management and risk mitigation.
* Realistic Testing: Since the staging environment replicates the production environment, it provides realistic testing conditions. This helps in identifying potential issues that might not be apparent in a development or testing environment, which often have different configurations and workloads.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Study Guide by Quentin Docter, Jon Buhagiar
* NIST Special Publication 800-53: Security and Privacy Controls for Information Systems and Organizations
NEW QUESTION # 25
An organization is required to
* Respond to internal and external inquiries in a timely manner
* Provide transparency.
* Comply with regulatory requirements
The organization has not experienced any reportable breaches but wants to be prepared if a breach occurs in the future. Which of the following is the best way for the organization to prepare?
- A. Developing communication templates that have been vetted by internal and external counsel
- B. Conducting lessons-learned activities and integrating observations into the crisis management plan
- C. Integrating automated response mechanisms into the data subject access request process
- D. Outsourcing the handling of necessary regulatory filing to an external consultant
Answer: A
Explanation:
Preparing communication templates that have been vetted by both internal and external counsel ensures that the organization can respond quickly and effectively to internal and external inquiries, comply with regulatory requirements, and provide transparency in the event of a breach.
Why Communication Templates?
* Timely Response: Pre-prepared templates ensure that responses are ready to be deployed quickly, reducing response time.
* Regulatory Compliance: Templates vetted by counsel ensure that all communications meet legal and regulatory requirements.
* Consistent Messaging: Ensures that all responses are consistent, clear, and accurate, maintaining the organization's credibility.
* Crisis Management: Pre-prepared templates are a critical component of a broader crisis management plan, ensuring that all stakeholders are informed appropriately.
Other options, while useful, do not provide the same level of preparedness and compliance:
* A. Outsourcing to an external consultant: This may delay response times and lose internal control over the communication.
* B. Integrating automated response mechanisms: Useful for efficiency but not for ensuring compliant and vetted responses.
* D. Conducting lessons-learned activities: Important for improving processes but does not provide immediate preparedness for communication.
References:
* CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
* NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"
* ISO/IEC 27002:2013, "Information technology - Security techniques - Code of practice for information security controls"
NEW QUESTION # 26
A security engineer needs 10 secure the OT environment based on me following requirements
* Isolate the OT network segment
* Restrict Internet access.
* Apply security updates two workstations
* Provide remote access to third-party vendors
Which of the following design strategies should the engineer implement to best meet these requirements?
- A. Enable outbound internet access on the OT firewall to any destination IP address and use the centralized update server for the workstations
- B. Create a staging environment on the OT network for the third-party vendor to access and enable automatic updates on the workstations.
- C. Deploy a jump box on the third party network to access the OT environment and provide updates using a physical delivery method on the workstations
- D. Implement a bastion host in the OT network with security tools in place to monitor access and use a dedicated update server for the workstations.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 27 
Which of the following is the security engineer most likely doing?
- A. Baselining user behavior to support advanced analytics
- B. Reporting on remote log-in activities to track team metrics
- C. Threat hunting for suspicious activity from an insider threat
- D. Assessing log in activities using geolocation to tune impossible Travel rate alerts
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the given scenario, the security engineer is likely examining login activities and their associated geolocations. This type of analysis is aimed at identifying unusual login patterns that might indicate an impossible travel scenario. An impossible travel scenario is when a single user account logs in from geographically distant locations in a short time, which is physically impossible. By assessing login activities using geolocation, the engineer can tune alerts to identify and respond to potential security breaches more effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 28
A systems administrator wants to use existing resources to automate reporting from disparate security appliances that do not currently communicate. Which of the following is the best way to meet this objective?
- A. Migrating application usage logs to on-premises storage
- B. Purchasing and deploying commercial off the shelf aggregation software
- C. Configuring an API Integration to aggregate the different data sets
- D. Combining back-end application storage into a single, relational database
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best way to automate reporting from disparate security appliances that do not currently communicate is to configure an API Integration to aggregate the different data sets. Here's why:
* Interoperability: APIs allow different systems to communicate and share data, even if they were not originally designed to work together. This enables the integration of various security appliances into a unified reporting system.
* Automation: API integrations can automate the process of data collection, aggregation, and reporting, reducing manual effort and increasing efficiency.
* Scalability: APIs provide a scalable solution that can easily be extended to include additional security appliances or data sources as needed.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-95: Guide to Secure Web Services
* OWASP API Security Top Ten
NEW QUESTION # 29
After some employees were caught uploading data to online personal storage accounts, a company becomes concerned about data leaks related to sensitive, internal documentation. Which of the following would the company most likely do to decrease this type of risk?
- A. Improve firewall rules to avoid access to those platforms.
- B. Implement a cloud-access security broker
- C. Create SIEM rules to raise alerts for access to those platforms
- D. Deploy an internet proxy that filters certain domains
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is a security policy enforcement point placed between cloud service consumers and cloud service providers to combine and interject enterprise security policies as cloud-based resources are accessed. Implementing a CASB provides several benefits:
* A. Improve firewall rules to avoid access to those platforms: This can help but is not as effective or comprehensive as a CASB.
* B. Implement a cloud-access security broker: A CASB can provide visibility into cloud application usage, enforce data security policies, and protect against data leaks by monitoring and controlling access to cloud services. It also provides advanced features like data encryption, data loss prevention (DLP), and compliance monitoring.
* C. Create SIEM rules to raise alerts for access to those platforms: This helps in monitoring but does not prevent data leaks.
* D. Deploy an internet proxy that filters certain domains: This can block access to specific sites but lacks the granular control and visibility provided by a CASB.
Implementing a CASB is the most comprehensive solution to decrease the risk of data leaks by providing visibility, control, and enforcement of security policies for cloud services.
References:
* CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
* Gartner, "Magic Quadrant for Cloud Access Security Brokers"
* NIST SP 800-144, "Guidelines on Security and Privacy in Public Cloud Computing"
NEW QUESTION # 30
A company is having issues with its vulnerability management program New devices/lPs are added and dropped regularly, making the vulnerability report inconsistent Which of the following actions should the company lake to most likely improve the vulnerability management process'
- A. Implement a shadow IT detection process to avoid rogue devices on the network
- B. Request a weekly report with all new assets deployed and decommissioned
- C. Perform regular discovery scanning throughout the 11 landscape using the vulnerability management tool
- D. Extend the DHCP lease lime to allow the devices to remain with the same address for a longer period.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To improve the vulnerability management process in an environment where new devices/IPs are added and dropped regularly, the company should perform regular discovery scanning throughout the IT landscape using the vulnerability management tool. Here's why:
* Accurate Asset Inventory: Regular discovery scans help maintain an up-to-date inventory of all assets, ensuring that the vulnerability management process includes all relevant devices and IPs.
* Consistency in Reporting: By continuously discovering and scanning new and existing assets, the company can generate consistent and comprehensive vulnerability reports that reflect the current state of the network.
* Proactive Management: Regular scans enable the organization to proactively identify and address vulnerabilities on new and existing assets, reducing the window of exposure to potential threats.
* References:
* CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide by Mike Chapple and David Seidl
* NIST Special Publication 800-40: Guide to Enterprise Patch Management Technologies
* CIS Controls: Control 1 - Inventory and Control of Hardware Assets
NEW QUESTION # 31
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Certification Topics of CAS-005 Exam PDF Recently Updated Questions: https://www.passleadervce.com/CompTIA-CASP/reliable-CAS-005-exam-learning-guide.html
CAS-005 Exam Prep Guide: Prep guide for the CAS-005 Exam: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1x2AItoxTFoozoJYBtY9pAaZFhlk8FUAh